A 34-year-old woman comes to the office for treatment of infertility. The patient has been trying to become pregnant with her current partner for the past year but has not yet conceived. Since menarche, she has had irregular menses, occurring every 3-6 months, with 7-14 days of bleeding. The patient's last menstrual period was 2 months ago. Over the last 6 months, she has tried to lose weight with exercise and diet but has been unsuccessful. The patient has no chronic medical conditions or prior surgeries. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin and has no medication allergies. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. BMI is 33 kg/m2. On skin examination, there is moderate acne on the chest and back and terminal hairs on the upper lip. Pelvic examination shows a nulliparous cervix, a normal uterus, and bilateral enlarged ovaries. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Hysterosalpingography reveals a normal uterine cavity with bilateral tubal patency, and her partner's semen analysis is normal. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient's infertility?
A) Letrozole
B) Leuprolide
C) Metformin
D) Progesterone
E) Spironolactone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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