A 70-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea. Last night, the patient experienced mild cramping with abdominal pain and an urgent desire to defecate, but when she went to the bathroom, she did not have a bowel movement. The patient attributed her symptoms to the spicy food she had for lunch and took some antacids, but the pain persisted. This morning she had large-volume diarrhea containing bright red blood. She has had no nausea or vomiting and has never had similar symptoms. The patient was found to have diverticulosis during a colonoscopy 2 years ago, so a high-fiber diet was advised. Other medical problems include hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease, and end-stage renal disease from diabetic nephropathy. She receives intermittent maintenance hemodialysis (most recently yesterday) and has had several occasions of hypotension during dialysis, requiring intravenous fluid replacement. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She has taken no antibiotics or nonsteroidal analgesics recently. The patient lives with her husband and has not recently traveled. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 119/81 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. The abdomen is mildly distended and soft with moderate left-sided tenderness. There is no rebound tenderness and bowel sounds are decreased. Rectal examination reveals bloody stool but no tenderness or mass. Laboratory results are as follows:
Upright abdominal radiography reveals a dilated transverse colon with no free air. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows mucosal edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Acute colonic ischemia
B) Acute diverticulitis
C) Colonic angiodysplasia
D) Pseudomembranous colitis
E) Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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