A 4-year-old boy is brought to the office by his parents due to behavioral problems. The parents recently decided to take him out of preschool after receiving numerous complaints from the staff about his hyperactive behavior (running and climbing in the classroom, interrupting the teacher) and inability to listen and follow directions. This is the second school he has attended this year. He was asked to leave the first school for similar behavior. The patient's mother says that at home, he "runs wild" and fights with his older siblings all the time. She says, "He is always bothering or interrupting his older sister and brother. Another difficulty is that we are always running late for school because I can't get him to follow through with getting dressed and eating breakfast." The father had a history of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder as an adolescent and was treated with amphetamines. He says, "I think I never would have graduated from high school without them." The boy has no medical problems and developmental milestones are within normal range. The parents are reluctant to have their son take medication and are particularly concerned about the risk of weight loss because he is already very thin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Begin clonidine due to parental concern about the risk of weight loss with stimulants
B) Explain that weight loss is rarely a concern and recommend starting methylphenidate
C) Reassure the parents that these are normal behaviors for an active 4-year-old boy
D) Recommend parent-child behavioral therapy
E) Recommend treatment with amphetamines due to the father's history of response
Correct Answer:
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