A 26-year-old man with a 5-year history of asthma comes to the office for follow-up after a recent hospital discharge. The patient was admitted due to fever, shortness of breath, trace hemoptysis, and productive cough with brownish mucus; he was treated with oral glucocorticoids, antibiotics, and nebulized bronchodilators. There were 2 similar episodes in the past year which were treated in the emergency department with tapering oral glucocorticoids on each occasion. He has a history of "walking pneumonia." Current medications include fluticasone/salmeterol, montelukast, and as-needed albuterol. He does not smoke cigarettes. His father was a heavy drinker and died from liver cirrhosis. The patient is not in acute distress. Physical examination shows diffuse wheezing with adequate air entry. A high resolution CT scan shows central bronchiectasis and a right lower lobe infiltrate. Review of prior chest x-rays shows a lingular infiltrate and a left lower lobe infiltrate. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Autoimmune syndrome
B) Deficiency in chloride transport
C) Exaggerated IgG and IgE immune response to an antigen
D) Immunodeficiency syndrome
E) Protein deficiency allowing unrestricted action of a proteolytic enzyme
Correct Answer:
Verified
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