A 24-year-old woman with a history of asthma comes to the emergency department at 32 weeks gestation with a 5-day history of increased dyspnea, wheezing, and cough. Her asthma was previously well-managed with a combination fluticasone-salmeterol inhaler twice daily, but the patient stopped using it when she discovered she was pregnant. She reports no nasal congestion, sore throat, or sinus pain. The patient has no other medical conditions, and her pregnancy has progressed normally. Her only other medication is a prenatal multivitamin. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her father has a history of asthma. On examination, the patient appears to be in mild respiratory distress. She is afebrile. Blood pressure is 110/68 mm Hg, pulse is 104/min, and respirations are 21/min. Pulse oximetry is 94% on room air. Lung examination reveals inspiratory and expiratory wheezes with a prolonged exhalation phase. Heart sounds are normal. Mild bilateral pitting pedal edema is present; there is no calf tenderness in either leg. Fetal heart rate monitoring is reassuring. Nebulized albuterol and inhaled ipratropium are administered and provide some relief. On repeat assessment shortly afterward, the patient continues to feel short of breath, and wheezing is still present on examination. Arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.45, PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and PaO2 of 100 mm Hg on 2 L of oxygen by nasal cannula. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer systemic corticosteroids and observe
B) Advise restarting inhaled corticosteroids and discharge with follow-up
C) Obtain a CT angiogram of the chest and administer anticoagulation
D) Obtain an echocardiogram and administer a dose of loop diuretic
E) Perform endotracheal intubation due to impending respiratory failure
Correct Answer:
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