A 28-year-old man is evaluated for abnormal movements of the hands and face. The patient reports that he started experiencing involuntary grimacing a year ago, which has gradually worsened. He is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for major depression but has not taken any antipsychotic medications. His 52-year-old father was diagnosed with an inherited movement disorder 2 months ago. Physical examination shows normal strength and normal deep tendon reflexes. No sensory deficits are noted. Which of the following best explains the difference in disease presentation between this patient and his father?
A) Anticipation
B) Genomic imprinting
C) Incomplete penetrance
D) Microdeletion
E) Mosaicism
F) Pleiotropy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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