Solved

A 66-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Because of a 2-Day

Question 35

Multiple Choice

A 66-year-old man comes to the office because of a 2-day history of intermittent red urine. He has not had flank pain, fever, dysuria, or increased urinary frequency. He has no history of recent trauma. Medical history is remarkable for hypertension and atrial fibrillation. His medications include lisinopril and warfarin. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 44 years and drinks 2 shots of vodka every day. He works as an operations manager for a large beverage company and frequently travels to Mexico. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Digital rectal examination shows a smooth, normal-sized prostate without any irregularities. Urinalysis is positive for >50 red blood cells/hpf; there are no casts or dysmorphic blood cells.  Urine cytology is positive for malignant cells.  Renal ultrasonogram reveals normal kidneys.  Which of the following is a major risk factor for this patient's current condition?


A) Alcohol use
B) Occupation
C) Testosterone therapy
D) Tobacco smoking
E) Travel history

Correct Answer:

verifed

Verified

Unlock this answer now
Get Access to more Verified Answers free of charge

Related Questions

Unlock this Answer For Free Now!

View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions

qr-code

Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks

upload documents

Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents