A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of intermittent headaches. They have been getting progressively worse and no longer respond to ibuprofen. He also reports vision problems while driving. The patient has no prior medical conditions and takes no medications. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Physical examination reveals deficits in the bilateral temporal visual fields. Extraocular movements are bilaterally intact, and the remainder of the neurological examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be present in this patient?

Question

A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of intermittent headaches. They have been getting progressively worse and no longer respond to ibuprofen. He also reports vision problems while driving. The patient has no prior medical conditions and takes no medications.  He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Physical examination reveals deficits in the bilateral temporal visual fields.  Extraocular movements are bilaterally intact, and the remainder of the neurological examination shows no abnormalities.  Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be present in this patient?

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Pituitary tumors can present with headaches, bitemporal hemianopsia, and hypopituitarism; the most common hormonally active (functional) adenomas are prolactin-secreting adenomas (prolactinomas).  Prolactinomas can cause galactorrhea and amenorrhea in women.  In men, they often present with hypogonadism.

A 35-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician Because of a 4-Month