A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic due to a 2-month history of increased left arm clumsiness and weakness. He has recently developed problems with his gait. The patient's symptoms have interfered with daily activities such as bathing and dressing. He has had no recent injury, headaches, or bowel/bladder symptoms. On physical examination, there is reduced muscle strength in the left upper extremity. Further evaluation with brain MRI reveals a lesion involving the corticospinal tract. Which of the following additional signs is most likely to been seen in this patient?
A) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
B) Muscle atrophy
C) Muscle fasciculation
D) Muscle hypotonia
E) Resting tremor
F) Sensory loss in the affected area
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q48: A previously healthy 20-year-old girl is brought
Q49: A 67-year-old man comes to the physician
Q50: A 5-year-old boy is brought by his
Q51: A 4800 g (10.6 lb) male newborn
Q52: A 4-month-old African-American infant is brought to
Q54: A 48-year-old woman is brought to the
Q55: A 4-month-old African-American infant is brought to
Q56: A 54-year-old man comes to the physician
Q57: A 28-year-old woman is brought to the
Q58: A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents