A 62-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department due to right lower extremity weakness. The patient woke up unable to move his right leg. In addition, she has urinary incontinence. One month ago, the patient was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. The patient did not seek a cardiological consult and did not take any medication. Blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg and pulse is 112/min and irregularly irregular. On examination, there is decreased motor strength of the right lower extremity and sensory loss. Additionally, she has a positive Babinski sign. Otherwise, the neurological examination is free. Embolic occlusion of which of the following regions would explain the patient's symptoms?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: The medial parts of the frontal and parietal lobes are supplied by the anterior cerebral artery. Occlusion at this level could lead to sensory or motor deficits in the contralateral lower extremity. Symptoms tend to be more severe if the occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery is distal to the origin of the anterior communicating artery.

A 62-Year-Old Woman Is Evaluated in the Emergency Department Due