A 30-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He is being evaluated for high blood pressure readings that were incidentally recorded at a routine health maintenance examination 1 month ago. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. His pulse is 88/min and blood pressure is 165/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The rest of the physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory evaluation shows very low plasma renin activity. Overactivity of which of the following structures is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?

Question

A 30-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He is being evaluated for high blood pressure readings that were incidentally recorded at a routine health maintenance examination 1 month ago. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. His pulse is 88/min and blood pressure is 165/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The rest of the physical examination is unremarkable.  Laboratory evaluation shows very low plasma renin activity.  Overactivity of which of the following structures is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Primary hyperaldosteronism is caused by excessive aldosterone secretion, typically as a result of bilateral nodular hyperplasia of the zona glomerulosa or an aldosterone-producing adrenal adenoma.  Clinical findings include hypertension, low plasma renin activity, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis.

A 30-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician for a Follow-Up