A 40-year-old guy arrives at the clinic with lesions on his thigh that he observed two weeks earlier. The lesions do not cause discomfort or itching. The patient has previously been infected with HIV. He has not been adhering to HIV treatment. The patient seems somewhat cachectic on physical examination. Vital indicators are typical. On his right thigh, he has two elliptical, elevated, nontender, violaceous lesions. There are no additional skin or mucous membrane lesions. Lymphadenopathy does not exist. The CD4 cell count is 100/mm³. Which of the following cells is most likely responsible for the patient's skin condition?

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Eductional Objective: In HIV individuals, Kaposi sarcoma frequently manifests as numerous red, purple, or brown lesions on the lower limbs. It is a vascular tumor induced by endothelial cell infection with human herpesvirus type 8.

A 40-Year-Old Guy Arrives at the Clinic with Lesions on His