A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the surgery department because of severe central chest pain, mild shortness of breath, and one episode of coughing up blood. Two days ago, she underwent a total hip arthroplasty with no operative complications. CT pulmonary angiogram shows a right lower lobe pulmonary artery occlusion consistent with pulmonary embolism but no evidence of pulmonary infarction. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the lack of lung tissue necrosis in this patient?
A) Collateral circulation
B) Decreased surfactant
C) Endothelial tissue plasminogen activator
D) Increased pulmonary venous pressure
E) Intrapulmonary shunting
Correct Answer:
Verified
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