A 38-year-old male is seen in the office due to increase in the scrotum size. He has a history of bilateral cryptorchidism in childhood and underwent orchiopexy at age 15 months. he has no prior medical health diseasesPhysical examination shows enlargement of both testicles. Scrotal ultrasound reveals bilateral testicular masses consistent with testicular germ cell tumor. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis do not reveal any lymph node metastasis. The patient undergoes bilateral orchiectomy. Which of the following long-term physiologic changes are most likely to occur as a result of treatment in this patient?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Following bilateral orchiectomy, extragonadal androgen sources are inadequate to replace the loss of testosterone, causing a hypogonadal state.  Loss of testosterone leads to changes in body composition, including decreased lean body weight, increased subcutaneous fat, and decreased bone density.  Loss of testosterone also leads to a significant decrease in prostate volume.

A 38-Year-Old Male Is Seen in the Office Due to Increase