A 38- year-old male comes to the office because of a recent scroutm enlargement. He also states that he does not like to have sex anymore. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medication. Physical examination is notable for significant enlargement of the left testis and bilateral gynecomastia. His other secondary sexual characteristics are normal. Serum B-hCG is markedly elevated and serum TSH is normal. Scrotal ultrasound reveals a 2.8-cm, irregular testicular mass with cystic areas. Which of the following is the most likely cuse of this patient's gynecomastia?
A) Decreased adrenal androgen production
B) Decreased hypothalamic secretion of GnRH
C) Displacement of androgens from breast androgen receptors
D) Increased Leydig cell aromatase activity
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q308: A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic
Q309: A 6-year-old Caucasian boy is brought to
Q310: A 45-year-old male comes to your clinic
Q311: A 1-month-old boy is brought to the
Q312: A65-year-old man is brought to the ER
Q314: A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis comes
Q315: A 25-year-old woman with has a normal
Q316: A 35-year-old woman arrives at the office
Q317: A 5-week-old infant is brought by his
Q318: A physiologist found during an experiment to
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents