Question 1

Which of the following cellular exchange mechanisms requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and the use of a carrier protein?
A) Facilitated diffusion
B) Osmosis
C) Active transport
D) Simple diffusion

Accepted Answer

Active transport requires ATP and a carrier protein to move substances against their concentration gradient.

Question 2

What is a key determinant of osmotic pressure?
A) Water
B) Sodium
C) Albumin
D) Glucose

Accepted Answer

B

Question 3

A 58-year-old man was gardening and mowing his lawn for a few hours in the heat. He started developing cramps and feeling dizzy. He has no significant past medical history and is in generally good health. He was transported to the emergency room. His serum osmolality is high. What is the likely explanation for this finding?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Excess fluid intake
C) Diabetes Insipidus
D) Dehydration

Accepted Answer

The high serum osmolality in this context is likely due to dehydration, as the man was exposed to heat and physical exertion, leading to fluid loss through sweating without adequate fluid replacement.

Question 4

A routine ultrasound of a 38-year-old woman of 26 weeks' gestation reveals that the fetus has trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). Most cases of Down syndrome are due to:
A) translocation.
B) inversion.
C) nondisjunction.
D) duplication.

Accepted Answer

Most cases of Down syndrome are caused by nondisjunction, which is the failure of chromosome 21 to separate properly during meiosis, resulting in an extra chromosome 21 in the fetus.

Question 5

While discussing treatment options with a parent of a newly diagnosed monosomy X (Turner syndrome) child, the nurse practitioner should state which of the following?
A) There is no treatment or cure.
B) Symptoms of the condition are treated with estrogen.
C) Symptoms of the condition are treated with testosterone.
D) Institutionalization is the preferred method of managing care.

Accepted Answer

Turner syndrome is often treated with estrogen therapy to help develop secondary sexual characteristics and manage symptoms related to estrogen deficiency.

Question 6

Tay-Sachs is caused by a(n):
A) deficiency or absence of hexosaminidase A.
B) defect on chromosome 17 or 22.
C) mutation on chromosome 15.
D) error in converting phenylalanine to tyrosine.

Accepted Answer

Tay-Sachs disease is caused by a deficiency or absence of the enzyme hexosaminidase A, which is necessary for breaking down certain fatty substances in the brain and nerve cells.

Question 7

Which of the following assessment findings is most concerning and would require immediate action?
A) Speech delays in a 10-year-old with Fragile X syndrome
B) A palpable lump in the left breast of an 18-year-old with Klinefelter syndrome
C) Vision issues in a 14-year-old with Turner syndrome
D) Bruise in a cancer patient receiving chemotherapy

Accepted Answer

A palpable lump in the breast of an 18-year-old male with Klinefelter syndrome is concerning because it could indicate breast cancer, which requires immediate evaluation.

Question 8

Which of the following human immunodeficiency virus positive patients has AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)? A) A 28-year-old woman with advanced cervical cancer B) A 30-year-old man with the common cold C) A 35-year-old woman with trichomoniasis vaginal infection D) A 40-year-old man with a CD4+ cell count of 400 cells/mm³

Accepted Answer

Advanced cervical cancer is an AIDS-defining condition, indicating progression from HIV to AIDS.

Question 9

Which of the following situations represents a break in the "first line of defense" against infection?
A) An abnormally low total white blood cell (WBC) count
B) A "shift to the left" on the WBC differential
C) Use of an indwelling bladder catheter
D) Poor nutritional status

Accepted Answer

The "first line of defense" against infection includes physical barriers like skin and mucous membranes. An indwelling bladder catheter can breach these barriers, providing a pathway for pathogens to enter the body.

Question 10

Education pertaining to prevention of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) includes:
A) proper use of mosquito repellant in areas with high rate of HIV.
B) use of pre-exposure prophylaxis if engaging in high-risk sexual behavior.
C) use of gloves by healthcare workers with every patient encounter.
D) avoidance of kissing HIV-positive persons.

Accepted Answer

Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is a preventive strategy for individuals at high risk of HIV exposure, particularly through sexual contact. It involves taking medication to reduce the risk of contracting HIV.

Question 11

Which of the following is an example of the chemical barriers that are part of the innate immune system?
A) Hydrochloric acid production in the stomach
B) Production of immunoglobulins
C) Release of interferon
D) Killer cells releasing lymphokines

Accepted Answer

Hydrochloric acid in the stomach is a chemical barrier that helps destroy pathogens ingested with food, making it part of the innate immune system.

Question 12

Which of the following describes the microbiome?
A) The flora remains consistent throughout a lifetime.
B) It consists of normal flora such as E. Coli in the intestines.
C) It mainly consists of pathogenic flora such as Clostridium difficile.
D) Increase in diversity is associated with disease development.

Accepted Answer

The microbiome includes normal flora like E. Coli in the intestines, which play a crucial role in maintaining health.

Question 13

The effects of histamine 1 release during mast cell degranulation includes:
A) increased gastric secretion.
B) decreased vascular permeability.
C) bronchial dilation.
D) edema.

Accepted Answer

Histamine 1 release during mast cell degranulation increases vascular permeability, leading to fluid leakage and resulting in edema.

Question 14

Which of the following blood cells have a lifespan of approximately 10 days?
A) Platelets
B) Red blood cells
C) Monocytes
D) Lymphocytes

Accepted Answer

Platelets have a lifespan of approximately 7-10 days in the bloodstream.

Question 15

Lymphoid progenitor stem cell lines differentiate into:
A) basophils and mast cells.
B) bands and neutrophils.
C) B and T cells.
D) platelets and white blood cells.

Accepted Answer

Lymphoid progenitor stem cells differentiate into B and T cells, which are types of lymphocytes involved in the adaptive immune response.

Question 16

A patient who has chronic kidney disease and a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL will be receiving synthetic erythropoietin injections. The therapeutic effect of this medication is:
A) prevention of red blood cell apoptosis.
B) stimulation of red blood cell production.
C) improvement of tissue oxygenation.
D) improvement in blood circulation.

Accepted Answer

Synthetic erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, which is its primary therapeutic effect.

Question 17

Which of the following serum levels is the best measurement for evaluating the effectiveness of iron therapy and adequacy of iron stores?
A) Ferritin
B) Iron
C) Red blood cell count
D) Apoferritin

Accepted Answer

Ferritin is the best indicator of iron stores in the body and is used to evaluate the effectiveness of iron therapy. It reflects the amount of stored iron and changes in response to iron therapy.

Question 18

A patient is receiving a heparin infusion. After the second day of infusion, his platelets decrease to 50,000 cells/mL³. The next best action would be to: A) decrease the rate of the infusion. B) stop the infusion and switch to another anticoagulant. C) continue infusion but monitor the platelet count every 4 hours. D) transfuse the patient with platelets.

Accepted Answer

The patient is likely experiencing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition where heparin causes a drop in platelet count. The best action is to stop heparin and switch to a non-heparin anticoagulant.

Question 19

A patient receiving chemotherapy has a hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL. Which of the following complaints would be indicative of tissue hypoxia related to anemia?
A) Apathy
B) Syncope
C) Bradycardia
D) Warm, dry skin

Accepted Answer

Syncope, or fainting, can occur due to reduced oxygen delivery to the brain, which is a result of tissue hypoxia caused by anemia.

Question 20

Which of the following statements regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome is not true?
A) It results from rapid release of thromboplastic material into the circulation.
B) It may result from any condition associated with extensive tissue destruction, such as shock or sepsis.
C) Levels of blood platelets and concentration of blood coagulation components are subnormal.
D) It is a frequent complication of pulmonary embolism.

Accepted Answer

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is not a frequent complication of pulmonary embolism. It is more commonly associated with conditions like sepsis, trauma, or cancer.

Quiz 15: Cellular Exchange, Genetics, Immunity, and Cardiovascular System

Which of the following cellular exchange mechanisms requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and the use of a carrier protein?

What is a key determinant of osmotic pressure?

A routine ultrasound of a 38-year-old woman of 26 weeks' gestation reveals that the fetus has trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) . Most cases of Down syndrome are due to:

While discussing treatment options with a parent of a newly diagnosed monosomy X (Turner syndrome) child, the nurse practitioner should state which of the following?

Tay-Sachs is caused by a(n) :

Which of the following assessment findings is most concerning and would require immediate action?

Which of the following human immunodeficiency virus positive patients has AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) ?

Which of the following situations represents a break in the "first line of defense" against infection?

Education pertaining to prevention of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) includes:

Which of the following is an example of the chemical barriers that are part of the innate immune system?

Which of the following describes the microbiome?

The effects of histamine 1 release during mast cell degranulation includes:

Which of the following blood cells have a lifespan of approximately 10 days?

Lymphoid progenitor stem cell lines differentiate into:

A patient who has chronic kidney disease and a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL will be receiving synthetic erythropoietin injections. The therapeutic effect of this medication is:

Which of the following serum levels is the best measurement for evaluating the effectiveness of iron therapy and adequacy of iron stores?

A patient is receiving a heparin infusion. After the second day of infusion, his platelets decrease to 50,000 cells/mL³. The next best action would be to:

A patient receiving chemotherapy has a hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL. Which of the following complaints would be indicative of tissue hypoxia related to anemia?

Which of the following statements regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome is not true?