A 29-year-old primagravida at 34 weeks gestation visits you in clinic today. Her baseline blood pressure at 11 weeks was 130/70. Today she states that she has had several headaches this week that were relieved by Tylenol. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated, except 4 days ago when she had a blood pressure of 145/78 and a negative urine dip for protein. Her laboratory tests to rule out preeclampsia were normal at that time. Today her blood pressure is 144/90 and her urine dip has no protein.
12-1. Which of the following would you include in your management plan for this patient today?
A) Administer corticosteroids to enhance fetal lung maturity
B) Begin biweekly antenatal testing (nonstress test and amniotic fluid index)
C) Prescribe baby aspirin to take once a day
D) Schedule for induction of labor at 36 weeks
Correct Answer:
Verified
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Q12: A 29-year-old primagravida at 34 weeks gestation
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