Which of the following statements best explains why the term "manic depression" is no longer widely used among clinicians?
A) Depressive episodes tend to last longer than manic episodes.
B) There are no distinct diagnostic criteria to differentiate mania from depression.
C) The resemblance of bipolar disorder to depression is superficial.
D) All individuals with bipolar disorder have depression, so the term is redundant.
Correct Answer:
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