Question 1

A statement that describes what an organization does that is different from others is a:
A)Values statement
B)Corporate goal
C)Vision statement
D)Mission statement

Accepted Answer

The mission statement describes who the organization is, what it does, where it is going, and how it is different from other companies.
Key Takeaway: The corporate values statement communicates the executive teams' expectations for the way the organization conducts business. Corporate goals describe what the organization plans to achieve in the future. The vision statement is a short, inspirational statement of what the organization will accomplish in the future. The mission statement is the only statement that describes how the organization will be different from other organizations.

Question 2

Which of the following describes a pocket veto?
A)Congress submits a bill to the president, but the president does not sign the bill within 10 days.
B)The president vetoes a bill from Congress. Congress then holds a vote but does not have a quorum.
C)Congress submits a bill to the president and then adjourns. The president does not sign the bill within 10 days.
D)The president vetoes a bill from Congress. Congress then holds a vote, but the bill does not pass.

Accepted Answer

A pocket veto occurs when Congress adjourns before the 10 days are up, and the president does not sign the bill.
Key Takeaway: Once Congress forwards a bill, the president has 10 days to sign it. A pocket veto occurs when Congress adjourns before the 10 days are up, and the president does not sign it. When the president vetoes a bill, Congress may try to override it with a two-thirds vote of a quorum in each house. If the bill does not pass, the veto stands. If Congress cannot raise a quorum to override a veto, the veto stands. If Congress submits a bill to the president and stays in session, the bill becomes law if the president does not sign it within 10 days.

Question 3

Which business measurement tool tracks information in the four key areas of: financial results, customer results, key internal processes, and how people are hired and trained to achieve organizational goals?
A)Balanced scorecard
B)Total quality management
C)Six Sigma
D)Management by objectives

Accepted Answer

The balanced scorecard concept tracks information in four key areas: financial results, customer results, key internal processes, and how people are hired and trained to achieve organizational goals.
Key Takeaway: The balanced scorecard is a strategic management system developed by Robert Kaplan and David Norton. They saw that traditional business measurements focused only on financial results, and other key elements that impacted business success were not being included in strategic management decisions. The purpose of the scorecard is to tie all business functions into specific plans for achieving goals and to provide a means of measuring how each objective contributed or failed to contribute to the organization's goals.

Question 4

Which of the following options is one characteristic of an organization during the startup phase?
A)Executive benefits are upgraded.
B)New hires may have less experience.
C)The compensation package is competitive.
D)Employees work closely with founders.

Accepted Answer

Employees work the mostly closely with organization founders during the startup phase.
Key Takeaway: In a startup phase there are generally few layers of management, which allows the employees to work closely with founders and leaders of the organization. As an organization becomes more successful during the growth phase, it can afford to provide competitive compensation and benefits for employees. Executive benefit packages are often enhanced during the maturity stage of organizational growth, and also the organization is able to hire new employees with less experience and spend money to train them and allow them to grow into positions.

Question 5

What is the primary benefit of having a chief ethics officer?
A)It allows for consistent communication of values and standards to the organization.
B)Legal counsel does not need to be consulted on ethical issues.
C)It reduces the number of employee complaints and dispute resolution sessions.
D)Other managers in the organization do not have to handle any more ethical issues.

Accepted Answer

Having a chief ethics officer will help increase the emphasis on ethical matters and do so in a cohesive manner.
Key Takeaway: The chief ethics officer is involved with communicating standards of conduct in terms of organizational values and culture and instilling these throughout the organization. They may also be involved with the ethical sensitivity of major organizational decisions. The chief ethics officer should not have the sole responsibility for ethics. All levels of management must support policy development, training, and enforcement.

Question 6

Which of the following is not a category of processes within project management?
A)Planning
B)Executing
C)Coordinating
D)Controlling

Accepted Answer

Coordinating is a management function, not a project management process.
Key Takeaway: Options A, B, and D are not the best choices, since they each identify a project management process (those processes include initiation, planning, executive, controlling, and closing).

Question 7

Which of the following statements about change is most true?
A)HR professionals must proactively seek to understand change and what causes change.
B)HR must serve as an employee advocate during times of change.
C)HR must ensure that the pace of change does not exceed the organization's ability to adapt to it.
D)HR must serve as a management advocate during times of change.

Accepted Answer

HR professionals must seek to understand change and what causes change, ideally before change descends upon the organization. Change brings considerable challenges of its own and often does not afford HR professionals with the luxury of time to study change theory or process.
Key Takeaway: Option C is not the best, since HR's role is not to regulate the pace of change. At times, the pace of change may not be controllable. At other times, the pace of change may be controllable, but the organization's leaders may decide that it is not appropriate or advisable to slow the pace of change. Options B and D are not the best since HR must serve as a "truth advocate" during times of change, not as a dedicated advocate of management or employees.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about values is not true?
A)Values are often expressed through terms such as "communication" and "decision making."
B)Values impact behaviors that are exhibited on a day-to-day basis in the workplace.
C)Values are beliefs on which an organization is built.
D)Values shape and guide strategic - as well as day to day - decision making.

Accepted Answer

Words like "communication" and "decision making" are terms that are often used to describe competencies (also called success factors), not values.
Key Takeaway: Options B, C, and D are not the best, since each makes a true statement about values.

Question 9

The first step in the scientific method is:
A)Develop a hypothesis.
B)Question and observe.
C)Scan existing secondary research.
D)Conduct a needs analysis.

Accepted Answer

"Question and observe" is, in fact, the first step in the scientific method.
Key Takeaway: Developing a hypothesis is the second step in the scientific method. The scientific method is a form of primary research and is therefore separate and distinct from secondary research. "Conducting a needs analysis and assessment" is the first step in the ADDIE process, not the scientific method.

Question 10

The primary purpose of an HR audit is
A)To ascertain how well the HR department - through all of its various functional areas - has aligned itself with eh organization's strategic objectives.
B)To ascertain the degree to which the HR department has complied with all legal requirements, and the potential financial exposure associated with existing levels of non-compliance.
C)To ascertain the performance of the HR department with respect to the nature and quality of the consultative services it provides to its internal clients.
D)To ascertain the degree to which the HR department is poised to meet the current, future, and emerging human capital and talent needs of the organization.

Accepted Answer

The primary and overarching purpose of an HR audit is to ascertain how well the HR department has aligned itself with the organization's strategic objectives.
Key Takeaway: Options B, C, and D each identifies a possible component of an HR audit, but none of these are broad enough to encompass the overarching purpose of an HR audit.

Question 11

Effectiveness can be defined as
A)A ratio of "inputs" to "outputs"
B)The degree to which goals are met
C)The degree to which goals reflect desired outputs
D)A ratio of "outputs" to "inputs"

Accepted Answer

Effectiveness is a measure of the degree to which goals - carefully established goals - are met.
Key Takeaway: Effectiveness is the extent to which goals are met. A, C, and D are not good answers because they are not definitions of effectiveness.

Question 12

Which of the following is not specifically recognized as being critically important to successfully implementing any strategic plan?
A)Commitment
B)Credibility
C)Collaboration
D)Communication

Accepted Answer

While collaboration is an important element of the strategic planning process, it is not recognized as on one of the three "Cs" - the most important keys to successful strategic planning.
Key Takeaway: Those "three Cs" are commitment, credibility and communication.

Question 13

Project managers seek to accomplish their objectives by gaining control over five factors, one of which is:
A)Regulatory compliance
B)Risk
C)Reward structures
D)Staffing

Accepted Answer

The five factors over which project managers seek to establish control are time, cost, quality, scope and risk.
Key Takeaway: Project managers do not specifically seek to establish control over regulatory compliance, reward structures, or staffing, although all of those elements will be considerations as they work to attain their objectives.

Question 14

All of the following are compelling reasons for organizations to engage in a strategic planning process except:
A)Developing a clearer awareness of how the organization "measures up" internally and externally.
B)Engaging individuals throughout the organization in a meaningful organizational effort.
C)Enabling employees to prepare themselves to react positively and constructively to future events.
D)Creating or reaffirming the vision, mission, and values of the organization.

Accepted Answer

The focus of strategic planning is on "proactivity," not "reactivity." Therefore, through strategic planning, the organization creates an opportunity for individuals at all levels of the organization to proactively shape and influence the future, rather than just react to it.
Key Takeaway: Options A, B, and C are not the best, since each one articulates a compelling reason to engage in strategic planning.

Question 15

Which of the following is not a key element of the ADDIE model?
A)Needs assessment/ analysis
B)Evaluation
C)Data collection
D)Design

Accepted Answer

"Data collection" is not one of the key elements of the ADDIE method.
Key Takeaway: The five key elements of ADDIE are Needs Assessment/Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, and Evaluation. While "date collection" would be part of needs assessment and analysis, it does not constitute one of the five key elements and does not stand for one of the "Ds."

Question 16

Which of the following functions is least likely to be outsourced?
A)Learning and development
B)Recruiting
C)Employee relations
D)Retirement benefits

Accepted Answer

Currently, within HR, transactional functions are more likely to be outsourced than non-transactional functions. In part, this is because non-transactional functions provide HR professionals with the greatest opportunities to add value to the organization.
Key Takeaway: Of these four choices, employee relations is the least transactional function. This information also highlights the need for HR professionals to recognize opportunities for performing seemingly transactional functions in a more strategic manner. Among the choices offered here, "recruiting" is the function that - while most likely to be performed in a transactional manner - offers the most untapped opportunity for strategic contribution.

Question 17

Which of the following does Maslow identify as each person's most fundamental need?
A)Basic physical needs
B)Esteem
C)Recognition
D)A living wage

Accepted Answer

Esteem is the second highest need on Maslow's hierarchy.
Key Takeaway: Esteem encompasses both "self" and "other" components, recognition falling into the category of "other." Although it could be argued that a living wage falls under the category of basic physical needs, it is not - by definition - the same as basic physical needs. In part, this is because the concept of a living wage did not exist when Maslow developed his hierarchy. Additionally, earning a living wage does not ensure that all of the dimensions of a person's basic physical needs will be met.

Question 18

Which of the following statements about RFPs is true?
A)RFPs should be written in a broad and open ended manner.
B)RFPs should not initially request information relative to the vendor's estimated costs.
C)Only government contractors or subcontractors need to use RFPs.
D)RFPs can be used relative to a variety of organizational problems.

Accepted Answer

RFPs can be used relative to any function, task, or project that the organization is considering outsourcing.
Key Takeaway: Option A is not the best choice because writing RFPs in a highly structured manner increases the likelihood that the proposed solutions are responsive to the organization's specific needs. A structured approach also facilitates the process of comparing RFPs that are submitted from multiple vendors. Option B is not the best choice because seeking information about pricing ensures that a company will not waste time by entertaining solutions that are cost-prohibitive. Option C is not the best choice because RFPs should be used by all organizations that are considering any kind of outsourcing; the process is unrelated to whether or not the organization is a government contractor or subcontractor.

Question 19

Which of the following statements about motivation-hygiene theory is accurate?
A)Victor Vroom developed it.
B)"Motivation factors" refer to non-work related factors such as pay, benefits and relationships with co-workers.
C)Unacceptable hygiene factors won't cause an employee to be unhappy at work , but unacceptable motivation factors will.
D)Acceptable or positive motivation factors won't cause an employee to be happy at work, but acceptable or positive hygiene factors will.

Accepted Answer

The Motivation-Hygiene theory predicts that positive motivation factors will cause an employee to be happy at work.
Key Takeaway: Vroom developed the Expectancy Theory, which deals with weighing options and making decisions, and Herzberg developed the Motivation-Hygiene theory. Motivation factors refer to work related factors (such as the nature of the work, and the challenge inherent to the work), while hygiene factors refer to the non-work related factors identified in option B. Lastly, acceptable or positive motivation factors will cause an employee to be happy at work, but acceptable or positive hygiene factors won't.

Question 20

Blake-Mouton's situational leadership theory
A)Measures and assesses concern for the needs of direct reports and concern for the accomplishment of tasks.
B)Identifies "impoverished managers" as ones who have not been given the opportunity to engage in training opportunities designed to enhance essential supervisory skills.
C)Uses a 10-point scale along each axis.
D)Builds upon Hersey and Blanchards' model.

Accepted Answer

Blake-Mouton's situational leadership theory builds on Hersey and Blanchard's model.
Key Takeaway: It identifies "impoverished managers" as those who delegate responsibility, then demonstrate no real concern for either people or task/production. This model uses a nine-point scale along each axis. Answer A is not the best answer because Blake-Mouton's situational leadership theory measures and assesses concern for people and concern for task/production.

Quiz 6: Strategy

A statement that describes what an organization does that is different from others is a:

Which of the following describes a pocket veto?

Which business measurement tool tracks information in the four key areas of: financial results, customer results, key internal processes, and how people are hired and trained to achieve organizational goals?

Which of the following options is one characteristic of an organization during the startup phase?

What is the primary benefit of having a chief ethics officer?

Which of the following is not a category of processes within project management?

Which of the following statements about change is most true?

Which of the following statements about values is not true?

The first step in the scientific method is:

The primary purpose of an HR audit is

Effectiveness can be defined as

Which of the following is not specifically recognized as being critically important to successfully implementing any strategic plan?

Project managers seek to accomplish their objectives by gaining control over five factors, one of which is:

All of the following are compelling reasons for organizations to engage in a strategic planning process except:

Which of the following is not a key element of the ADDIE model?

Which of the following functions is least likely to be outsourced?

Which of the following does Maslow identify as each person's most fundamental need?

Which of the following statements about RFPs is true?

Which of the following statements about motivation-hygiene theory is accurate?

Blake-Mouton's situational leadership theory