Question 1

Which is NOT correct regarding migraines?

Accepted Answer

Ketorolac has not been shown to be superior to chlorpromazine in the management of migraines. In fact, chlorpromazine is often used for its effectiveness in treating severe migraine attacks, especially in emergency department settings, whereas ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can be used for pain relief but is not specifically superior in migraine management.

Question 2

Which is NOT true of non-traumatic subarachnoid haemorrhage?

Accepted Answer

70% of non-traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhages are due to ruptured cerebral aneurysms, not arteriovenous malformations (AVMs). AVMs are a less common cause.

Question 3

Which is true regarding the presentation of SAH?

Accepted Answer

B

Question 4

Which is INCORRECT regarding investigation of SAH?

Accepted Answer

Xanthochromia may not be present in all patients with SAH at 6 hours post bleed; it typically takes longer to develop.

Question 5

Which is INCORRECT regarding treatment and complications of SAH?

Accepted Answer

Vasospasm and delayed neurological deficit actually peak around 7-10 days post-bleed, not on day 1. This is a critical period for monitoring and intervention in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH).

Question 6

What is the survival rate of a Hunt and Hess Grade 5 SAH?

Accepted Answer

The survival rate for a Hunt and Hess Grade 5 subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is approximately 10%. Grade 5 indicates a deep coma and moribund state, leading to a very low survival rate.

Question 7

Which is NOT correct regarding temporal arteritis?

Accepted Answer

Temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis, is more common in women than in men, making option B incorrect.

Question 8

Which is INCORRECT of treatment of TIA's?

Accepted Answer

EC) Anticoagulation for TIA's secondary to thrombosis is not universally recommended as the best approach for all patients. The decision to use anticoagulation depends on the underlying cause of the TIA, and it has not been shown to improve outcomes universally.E) Immediate anticoagulation for patients with considerable carotid stenosis (>70%) pending surgery is not a standard recommendation. The decision for anticoagulation should be individualized, and not all patients with carotid stenosis are candidates for anticoagulation prior to surgery.

Question 9

Which is INCORRECT regarding cerebral infarction?

Accepted Answer

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is most commonly associated with lesions in the medial longitudinal fasciculus, which is typically related to multiple sclerosis or stroke, but not specifically linked to anterior cerebral artery occlusion. It is more often related to damage in areas supplied by the posterior circulation, not the anterior cerebral artery.

Question 10

Which is not an early sign of cerebral infarction on CT?

Accepted Answer

All the options listed (loss of cortical grey/white matter distinction, effacement of cortical sulci, compression of the ventricular system, and hyperdense clot in the MCA) can be early signs of cerebral infarction on a CT scan. These changes reflect early brain edema, vascular changes, or direct evidence of a clot causing the infarction.

Question 11

Which is true of thrombolysis in cerebral infarct?

Accepted Answer

The answer of Which is true of thrombolysis in cerebral...

Question 12

Which feature of vertigo is more likely to make it central rather than peripheral?

Accepted Answer

The fast phase of nystagmus toward the lesion is more likely to make vertigo central rather than peripheral because it indicates a brainstem lesion.

Question 13

Which statement regarding peripheral vertigo is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Labyrinthitis is not the most common cause of peripheral vertigo; Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) is more commonly identified as the most frequent cause of peripheral vertigo.

Question 14

Which statement regarding central vertigo is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Multiple sclerosis can cause vertigo, but it typically lasts longer than a few minutes and can be recurring.

Question 15

Which of the following drugs is unlikely to cause seizure in withdrawal/

Accepted Answer

The answer of Which of the following drugs is unlikely...

Question 16

Which is INCORRECT regarding the aetiology of seizures?

Accepted Answer

Space occupying lesions (such as tumors) account for a much higher percentage of new-onset seizures in the age group of 35-65 years than just 1%. They are a significant cause of seizures in adults, making option D incorrect.

Question 17

Which statement is incorrect regarding treatment of seizures?

Accepted Answer

The loading dose (LD) of phenytoin does not need to be decreased in renal impairment because phenytoin is primarily metabolized by the liver, not the kidneys. Adjustments are more related to its protein binding and hepatic metabolism.

Question 18

Which is incorrect of seizures?

Accepted Answer

The risk of seizures can actually increase during pregnancy due to various factors including changes in medication levels, stress, and the potential for eclampsia.

Question 19

Which is incorrect regarding status epilepticus?

Accepted Answer

The answer of Which is incorrect regarding status epilepticus?
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Question 20

Which of the following peripheral neurological nerve lesions will not result in proximal weakness greater than peripheral?

Accepted Answer

Neuropathy typically affects the distal extremities first and is characterized by a "glove and stocking" distribution, meaning it affects the hands and feet before it affects proximal muscles. Radiculopathy, neuromuscular junction diseases, and myopathies can all present with more marked proximal weakness.

Quiz 1: Neurological Disorders