Question 1

Which spread spectrum technology specifies data rates of 22 Mbps and 33 Mbps?
A)DSSS
B)OFDM
C)PBCC
D)FHSS

Accepted Answer

PBCC specifies data rates of 22 Mbps and 33 Mbps.
Key Takeaway: PBCC is a 64-state binary convolutional code used for a high-speed physical layer of a communication network. The proposed code provides improved performance in terms of signal-to-noise ratio and multi-path rejection. It includes binary convolutional codes with scrambling in a packet-based system.

Question 2

What is the default configuration mode that allows an AP radio to operate in a basic service set?
A)Repeater
B)Root
C)Access
D)Non-root

Accepted Answer

The default configuration mode that allows an AP radio to operate in a basic service set is the Root mode.
Key Takeaway: Root mode is the normal default setting of an access point. In the root mode, the AP transfers data back and forth between the DS and the 802.11 wireless medium. The default root configuration of an AP allows it to operate inside a basic service set.

Question 3

Which of the following factors does not affect the size of a BSA coverage area of an access point?
A)Antenna gain
B)CSMA/CA
C)Transmission power
D)Physical surroundings

Accepted Answer

The size of a BSA coverage area of an access point is not dependent on CSMA/CA.
Key Takeaway: The size and shape of a basic service area depends on many variables. The variables include AP transmit power, antenna gain, and physical surroundings.

Question 4

Which of the following is used to notify all stations about a multicast or broadcast frame waiting to be transmitted?
A)DTIM
B)CTIM
C)ATIM
D)BTIM

Accepted Answer

DTIM is used to notify all stations about a multicast or broadcast frame waiting to be transmitted.
Key Takeaway: DTIM, or Delivery Traffic Indication Message, is used to notify stations of pending broadcast traffic. It is a kind of Traffic Indication Message which informs the clients about the presence of buffered multicast/broadcast data on the access point. It is generated within the periodic beacon at a frequency specified by the DTIM Interval.

Question 5

Which of the following is the cell overlap typically needed for seamless roaming?
A)25 to 50 percent
B)15 to 30 percent
C)15 to 20 percent
D)5 to 10 percent

Accepted Answer

A cell overlap of 15 to 20 percent is typically needed for seamless roaming.
Key Takeaway: Seamless roaming allows mobility in a wireless network. The handover from one access point to another occurs in milliseconds. The data intended for delivery to the station that has roamed to a new access point might still be buffered at the original access point. Most vendors recommend cell overlap of 15 to 20 percent to achieve successful seamless roaming.

Question 6

Which of the following specifies the maximum non-overlapping channels that can be deployed in the 2.4 GHz ISM band?
A)3
B)12
C)11
D)5

Accepted Answer

The maximum non-overlapping channels that can be deployed in the 2.4 GHz ISM band is 3.
Key Takeaway: The 802.11b and 802.11g amendments require 25 MHz of separation between the center frequencies of HR-DSSS channels to be considered non-overlapping. The 802.11g amendment also requires 20 MHz of separation between the center frequencies of ERP-OFDM channels. Only three channels: 1, 6, and 11 meet these requirements.

Question 7

What is the size of the static key used in a 128-bit WEP encryption scheme?
A)104 bytes
B)64 bits
C)104 bits
D)124 bits

Accepted Answer

The size of the static key used in 128-bit WEP encryption schemes is 104 bits.
Key Takeaway: WEP uses the stream cipher RC4 for confidentiality and the CRC-32 checksum for integrity. A 128-bit WEP key is almost always entered by users as a string of 26 hexadecimal characters. Each character represents four bits of the key. 26 digits of four bits each give 104 bits, and adding the 24-bit IV produces the final 128-bit WEP key.

Question 8

You are using an 802.11 wireless switch solution. Which of the following devices should be used as an authenticator?
A)Access point
B)LDAP
C)Wi-Fi switch
D)VLAN

Accepted Answer

A Wi-Fi switch should be used as an authenticator.
Key Takeaway: Wi-Fi switches serve as the central nervous system for a group of lightweight access points, or LWAPs, often referred to as thin clients. Wi-Fi Switches can also control autonomous APs. Some of the features of a Wi-Fi switch include tracking Wi-Fi devices within the WLAN infrastructure, centralized management, and the ability to include an integrated AAA server for network authentication.

Question 9

Which of the following attack is MAC filtering susceptible to?
A)MAC re-injection
B)ARP poisoning
C)Spoofing
D)IV Collisions

Accepted Answer

MAC filtering is susceptible to Spoofing.
Key Takeaway: The MAC address can always be seen in clear text in the layer 2 header of an 802.11 frame. They can be spoofed easily, thus allowing a hacker to bypass any MAC filter by using an allowed client station's MAC address.

Question 10

Which of these attacks cannot be detected by a WIDS?
A)MAC spoofing
B)Protocol analyzer
C)Rogue access point
D)Association flood

Accepted Answer

A porotocol analyzer attack cannot be detected by a WIDS.
Key Takeaway: A protocol analyzer is a passive device that captures traffic on a 802.11 network. Protocol analyzer can be used for malicious eavesdropping. A WIDS or Wireless Intrusion Detection System cannot detect a passive device.

Question 11

Which of the following can be used to mitigate the threat from a rogue access point?
A)WIDS
B)WIPS
C)TKIP/RC4
D)WINS

Accepted Answer

WIPS can be used to mitigate the threat from a rogue access point.
Key Takeaway: A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has been installed on a secure company network without explicit authorization from a local network administrator. A wireless intrusion prevention system, or WIPS, is capable of mitigating attacks from rogue access points. A WIPS sensor can use layer 2 DoS attacks as a countermeasure against a rogue device.

Question 12

Which of the following is not a label that WIPS uses to classify an 802.11 device?
A)Infrastructure
B)Known
C)Disabled
D)Rogue

Accepted Answer

Disabled is not a label that WIPS uses to classify an 802.11 device.
Key Takeaway: WIPS labels 802.11 clients into three classifications, namely: Infrastructure, Known, and Rogue. An infrastructure device is a client station or access point that is an authorized member of the wireless network. A known device refers to any client station or access point that is detected by the WIPS, but is not considered an interfering device or a rogue access point. A rogue device refers to any client station or access point that is considered an interfering device and a potential threat.

Question 13

Which of the following is a spectrum management technology that uses a decentralized approach to adjust access point power and channel settings?
A)Transmit power control
B)Dynamic frequency selection
C)RFSM
D)GFSK

Accepted Answer

RFSM is a spectrum management technology that uses a decentralized approach to adjust access point power and channel settings.
Key Takeaway: Radio Frequency Spectrum Management provides automatic cell sizing, automatic monitoring, troubleshooting, and optimization of the RF environment. A centralized device can dynamically change the configuration of thin or fat access points based on accumulated RF information gathered from the access points. The centralized device controls the access points and adjusts their power and channel settings, dynamically changing the RF coverage cells based on the accumulated RF information.

Question 14

Which of the following site survey type uses modeling algorithms and attenuation values to create visual models of RF coverage cells?
A)Predictive
B)Associated
C)Passive
D)Active

Accepted Answer

Predictive site survey uses modeling algorithms and attenuation values to create visual models of RF coverage cells.
Key Takeaway: Predicted coverage analysis is done using an application. This application creates a visual model of RF coverage cells by bypassing the need for actually capturing RF measurements. Projected cell coverage zones are created using modeling algorithms and attenuation values.

Question 15

Which of the following specifies the number of phase shifts provided by DQPSK?
A)5
B)4
C)3
D)7

Accepted Answer

The number of phase shifts provided by DQPSK is 4.
Key Takeaway: Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying, or DBPSK, utilizes two phase shifts: one that represents a 0 chip and another that represents a 1 chip. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying or DQPSK provides faster throughput by utilizing four phase shifts. This allows each of the four phase shifts to modulate two chips (00, 01, 10, 11) instead of just one chip. This doubles the speed.

Question 16

Which of the following devices is not a potential source of interference for devices operating in any band?
A)Bluetooth
B)2.4 GHz DSSS cordless phone
C)802.11 FHSS access point
D)HomeRF access point

Accepted Answer

The 2.4 GHz DSSS cordless phone is not a potential source of interference for devices operating in any band.
Key Takeaway: The major source for interference for devices operating in any band is FHSS. FHSS is used by Bluetooth, 802.11 FHSS access points, and Home RF equipment. The 2.4 GHz cordless phone operates in the 2.4 GHz ISM band and interferes with devices in the 2.4 GHz band only.

Quiz 1: Certified Wireless Network Administrator (CWNA)

Which spread spectrum technology specifies data rates of 22 Mbps and 33 Mbps?

What is the default configuration mode that allows an AP radio to operate in a basic service set?

Which of the following factors does not affect the size of a BSA coverage area of an access point?

Which of the following is used to notify all stations about a multicast or broadcast frame waiting to be transmitted?

Which of the following is the cell overlap typically needed for seamless roaming?

Which of the following specifies the maximum non-overlapping channels that can be deployed in the 2.4 GHz ISM band?

What is the size of the static key used in a 128-bit WEP encryption scheme?

You are using an 802.11 wireless switch solution. Which of the following devices should be used as an authenticator?

Which of the following attack is MAC filtering susceptible to?

Which of these attacks cannot be detected by a WIDS?

Which of the following can be used to mitigate the threat from a rogue access point?

Which of the following is not a label that WIPS uses to classify an 802.11 device?

Which of the following is a spectrum management technology that uses a decentralized approach to adjust access point power and channel settings?

Which of the following site survey type uses modeling algorithms and attenuation values to create visual models of RF coverage cells?

Which of the following specifies the number of phase shifts provided by DQPSK?

Which of the following devices is not a potential source of interference for devices operating in any band?