A woman who is an intravenous drug abuser and who has been a prostitute for the past 20 years now has an aortitis. She has no mucosal ulcerations or exanthems. Her VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test is negative and her fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Early primary syphilis
B) Lyme disease
C) Secondary syphilis
D) Latent syphilis
E) Tertiary syphilis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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