A 45-year-old man is started on an intravenous neuroleptic drug for treatment of seizures in the hospital. He achieves a steady state plasma drug concentration of 20 mg/L. After no seizure activity for 48 hours, plans are made to discharge him on an oral form of his seizure drug. The drug's clearance rate is 0.25 L/hr and bioavailability is 50%. Which of the following is an appropriate oral dosing regimen?
A) 10mg once per day
B) 20mg twice per day
C) 120mg twice per day
D) 1000me twice per day
E) 2000mg once per day
Correct Answer:
Verified
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