A 54 year old man presented at the Emergency Department with severe chest pain.A chest x-ray revealed a markedly dilated ascending aorta.Before any further tests could be performed,the patient expired.At autopsy,a markedly dilated aorta was observed,with aortic dissection.The accompanying photomicrograph shows the pathology of the aorta.The letter "E" denotes elastic fibres,while "L" shows a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate around small vessels in the adventitia.Which one of the following is the best explanation for the underlying cause of the patient's demise? 
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Congenital elastin deficiency
C) Endarteritis obliterans
D) Marfan syndrome
E) Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer:
Verified
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