A 40-year-old man is concerned with his inability to have an erection since he was prescribed an antispasmodic for a muscular back injury. The man's health history includes the use of hydrocortisone creams to manage a chronic integumentary condition. What is this man experiencing?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The antispasmodic medication is likely causing the inability to have an erection. Antispasmodics can have adverse effects on sexual function. The hydrocortisone creams for the integumentary condition are unlikely to be causing erectile dysfunction. It is possible that the man is experiencing a psychosexual complaint, but it is more likely that the medication is the cause of his concern. There is not enough information to suggest age-related erectile dysfunction as a likely cause in this case.

A 40-Year-Old Man Is Concerned with His Inability to Have