A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with narcolepsy,a disorder characterized by an uncontrolled tendency to fall asleep.His physician has decided to prescribe a psychomotor stimulant drug.Select the correct statement related to the mechanism of action of the amphetamine class of drugs.
A) Amphetamines stimulate the release of norepinephrine and epinephrine from the nerve endings and prevent the reuptake of these back into the nerve endings, producing CNS stimulation, reticular formation, elevation of mood, and an increase in wakefulness and alertness.
B) Amphetamines stimulate the release of norepinephrine and serotonin from the nerve endings and prevent the reuptake of these back into the nerve endings, producing CNS stimulation, reticular formation, elevation of mood, and an increase in wakefulness and alertness.
C) Amphetamines stimulate the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from the nerve endings and prevent the reuptake of these back into the nerve endings, producing CNS stimulation, reticular formation, elevation of mood, and an increase in wakefulness and alertness.
D) None of these are correct.
Correct Answer:
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