A 45-year-old woman is seen because of irregular menstrual periods.Her follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level is 48 mIU/mL, and her luteinizing hormone (LH) level is elevated.She asks the clinician what this means.Which would be the best response?
A) "You are approaching menopause."
B) "You have a hormonal imbalance."
C) "Your FSH is normal, but your pituitary is making too much LH."
D) "There is an imbalance between your ovaries and pituitary."
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic
Q17: Which of the following would be appropriate
Q18: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the
Q19: A 42-year-old woman presents to the clinic
Q20: What is the most common cause of
Q22: A 48-year-old woman is seen in the
Q23: Which of the following tests is essential
Q24: Oral contraceptive pills can cause endometrial cancer.
Q25: A 58-year-old woman, who had a total
Q26: A 60-year-old woman is seen for an
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents