A 36-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with 2 days of mild right eye pain worsened by eye movement. She also describes a persistent black spot in the center of her vision. She has no recent respiratory infection, fever, or headache.
On examination, there is no eye redness or exudate. Funduscopic examination shows mild hyperemia of the right optic disk.
MRI of the head shows several scattered ovoid-shaped, periventricular white matter lesions.
Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?
A) Aspirin
B) Intravenous methylprednisolone
C) Intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor
D) Oral prednisone
E) Topical pilocarpine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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