A 64-year-old man hospitalized with acute myocardial infarction 3 days ago has chest pain that is worse on deep inspiration and radiates to the trapezius ridge. He underwent cardiac catheterization on admission and was found to have occlusion of the distal left anterior descending artery that could not be revascularized. He was treated with low-dose aspirin, clopidogrel, atorvastatin, metoprolol, and valsartan.
Physical examination shows a friction rub at the lower left sternal border.
Echocardiogram shows apical hypokinesis, left ventricular ejection fraction of 50%, and trivial pericardial effusion.
Which of the following is the best management for this patient?
A) Discontinue aspirin and clopidogrel
B) Increase aspirin to higher dose
C) Start heparin infusion
D) Treat with ibuprofen
E) Treat with low-dose prednisone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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