A 54-year-old man is hospitalized due to progressive dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. Evaluation reveals jugular venous distension, bibasilar crackles, and pitting edema of the bilateral lower extremities. Echocardiography shows decreased left ventricular contractility with an ejection fraction of 30%. Coronary angiography reveals no obstructive coronary artery disease. Symptoms gradually improve with intravenous furosemide. On the fourth day of hospitalization, the patient begins to experience severe right foot and ankle pain. The pain started suddenly during the night with no antecedent trauma. He had an episode of right knee pain several years ago, which improved with over-the-counter analgesics. The patient has a history of hypertension and HIV. CD4+ cell count was 450/mm3 2 months ago. Antiretroviral therapy has been continued since admission.
Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) . Examination shows redness, warmth, tenderness, and decreased range of motion in the right ankle and midfoot. There is no skin rash.
Leukocyte count is 13,200 cells/mm3 and serum creatinine is 1.0 mg/dL. Radiography of the right foot and ankle shows no fracture or dislocation, but significant soft tissue swelling and a heel spur are seen.
Which of the following is most likely contributing to this patient's foot pain?
A) Antiretroviral therapy
B) Embolization of cholesterol crystals
C) Loop diuretic use
D) Presence of a heel spur
E) Tibial nerve compression
Correct Answer:
Verified
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