A 42-year-old woman comes to the office due to worsening toenail disfiguration over the past 3 months. The patient has had no lower extremity pain or redness and recalls no trauma. She has a history of hypertension and takes hydrochlorothiazide.
Examination findings are shown in the image.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Biopsy from the nail bed
B) Potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation of nail scrapings
C) Topical antibiotic and antiseptic soaks
D) Topical antifungal therapy
E) Topical corticosteroid therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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