A 27-year-old woman comes to the office due to hair loss. For the last week, small clumps of hair have come out when she showers or brushes her hair. There is no associated pain or itching in the scalp. The patient had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of her second child 3 months ago, and her medical history is otherwise unremarkable. She is breastfeeding and continues to take a prenatal vitamin. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
Vital signs are normal. Skin examination shows diffuse hair loss across the scalp with no other abnormalities. Complete blood count and serum chemistries are normal. Serum TSH is 4.0 µU/mL and free T4 is 1.2 ng/dL (normal: 0.9-2.4) .
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's hair loss?
A) Prescribe oral finasteride
B) Prescribe topical corticosteroids
C) Prescribe topical minoxidil
D) Provide reassurance only
E) Refer for cognitive-behavioral therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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