A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician because of irregular menstrual periods and failure to conceive. She was on oral contraceptive pills for 4 years for irregular menstrual periods, which she discontinued 7 months ago. She has never before tried to become pregnant. There is no history of hirsutism or abdominal striae. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. She has a sedentary desk job at a research laboratory. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. Her partner is in good health, and his semen analysis is normal.
Her blood pressure is 126/78 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2. Physical examination, including bimanual pelvic examination, is unremarkable.
Laboratory investigations performed on the 2nd day of her menstrual cycle reveal:
Mid-luteal phase progesterone is very low, indicating that she is not ovulating. Her fasting venous glucose level is 104 mg/dL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for her ovulatory dysfunction?
A) Bromocriptine
B) Clomiphene
C) Diet and exercise to lose weight
D) Levothyroxine
E) Metformin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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