A 50-year-old woman comes to the physician for follow-up of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed with diabetes 2 years ago and tried lifestyle modifications. She currently takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily. The patient has a family history of diabetes, chronic kidney disease, and stroke. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
Her blood pressure is 152/92 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min. Her BMI is 39 kg/m2. Acanthosis nigricans is present on the neck and axilla. The liver span is 10 cm. Peripheral pulses are 2+ bilaterally. There is no sensory loss over the lower extremities as assessed by microfilament test.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Urine is positive for microalbumin.
Which of the following measures is most likely to achieve a hemoglobin A1c <6.0% in one year in this patient?
A) Adding a sulfonylurea
B) Adding an incretin mimetic
C) Bariatric surgery
D) Continued intensive nutritional counseling
E) Starting insulin therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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