A 35-year-old man comes to the physician with complaints of dizziness and fatigue. These episodes occur immediately after he exercises on the treadmill for 30 minutes, and are accompanied by shaking and sweating. He has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and takes insulin glargine once daily at breakfast and pre-meal injections of insulin aspart. The patient checks his blood glucose every day prior to breakfast; the usual range is 110-140 mg/dL. His last hemoglobin A1C was 7.2%. He has no other medical problems.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Decrease exercise intensity and duration
B) Decrease insulin glargine dose
C) Extra food consumption before exercise
D) Increase the dose of pre-breakfast aspart
E) Replace insulin glargine with NPH insulin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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