A 36-year-old woman comes to the office due to weight gain of 9 kg (20 lb) , facial hair growth, easy bruising, and muscle weakness over the last 4 months. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications.
Blood pressure is 148/90 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. BMI is 31 kg/m2. The patient has an unusually round face with deposition of fat in the supraclavicular and posterior neck areas. There is coarse terminal hair on her face and lower abdomen. Skin examination reveals wide striae on the abdomen. There is also mild proximal muscle weakness.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Pregnancy test is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) ACTH level
B) CT scan of the adrenal glands
C) High-dose dexamethasone suppression test
D) MRI of the pituitary gland
E) Petrosal venous sinus sampling
Correct Answer:
Verified
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