A 43-year-old woman with no significant medical history comes to the physician with episodic rectal pain for the past 8 months. About once a month she has severe rectal pain that lasts for minutes and resolves without intervention. She has no fever, diarrhea, anal trauma, rectal bleeding, or weight loss. She has 1 formed bowel movement every 3 days without any straining and does not associate the pain with bowel movements. She takes no medications.
Her blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination reveals a soft, nontender abdomen with normal bowel sounds. There is no hepatomegaly or splenomegaly. Rectal examination shows normal tone, no external hemorrhoids, and guaiac-negative brown stool. Pelvic examination is also unremarkable.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Colonoscopy is notable for small internal hemorrhoids and mild diverticulosis.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Endometriosis
B) Fibromyalgia
C) Irritable bowel syndrome
D) Proctalgia fugax
E) Somatization disorder
Correct Answer:
Verified
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