A 36-year-old man with a 3-year history of celiac disease comes to the physician with fatigue, low-grade fevers, abdominal pain, and diarrhea for 3 months. He was symptom free for 2 years when he followed a strict gluten-free diet. However, in the past year, he developed symptoms twice due to poor dietary compliance. The patient's other medical problems include type I diabetes mellitus and depression. His father died of colon cancer at age 55. His mother has diabetes, and a sister has celiac disease.
His temperature is 38.3° C (101° F) , blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. The abdomen is soft but tender in the periumbilical area. There is no rebound tenderness or rigidity. Rectal examination shows dark stools positive for blood.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Clostridium perfringens infection
B) Dietary noncompliance
C) Intestinal lymphoma
D) Pancreatic insufficiency
E) Refractory celiac sprue
Correct Answer:
Verified
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