A 36-year-old man comes to the physician with daily epigastric pain for past 3 months. He has no vomiting, diarrhea, or weight loss. He has suffered from painful ulcers in his mouth once a year since he was a teenager. His only medications are a daily multivitamin and occasional ibuprofen for headaches. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient emigrated from Taiwan 3 years ago. There is no family history of gastrointestinal malignancy or inflammatory bowel disease.
Examination is remarkable for mild epigastric tenderness. Stool is positive for occult blood.
His hemoglobin is 12.9 g/dL. Stool Helicobacter pylori antigen testing is positive. An upper endoscopy reveals no esophageal lesions and a solitary 1.4-cm ulcer with well demarcated edges in the antrum of the stomach.
Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?
A) Endoscopic multiple biopsies of the ulcer
B) Lansoprazole, discontinuation of ibuprofen, and repeat endoscopy in 6 months
C) Ranitidine and discontinuation of ibuprofen
D) Serum anti-transglutaminase antibodies
E) Serum gastrin level
Correct Answer:
Verified
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