A 35-year-old woman comes to the office due to a 6-month history of diarrhea. She has had several loose stools per day without visible blood or mucus. The patient has also noticed bloating and abdominal discomfort following meals. She eats a varied diet and cannot identify any particular foods associated with her symptoms. The patient is unsure if she has lost weight but says that her friends have remarked that she "doesn't look healthy." The patient's medical history includes iron-deficiency anemia and menorrhagia. Her only medication is an oral iron supplement and she has no known drug allergies. Family history is remarkable for hypothyroidism in her mother. The patient has had no recent travel and works from home.
Temperature is 36.4 C (97.5 F) , blood pressure is 115/63 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 14/min. Sclera are anicteric and mucous membranes are moist. Auscultation of the heart and lungs is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Rectal examination is normal, and fecal occult blood testing is negative. No skin rashes are present. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9.6 mg/dL with mean corpuscular volume of 71 µm3. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Antigliadin antibody testing
B) Endoscopy with duodenal biopsy
C) Gluten-free diet with close follow-up for symptom resolution
D) Human leukocyte antigen testing
E) Total IgA level testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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