A 42-year-old woman from the Philippines comes to the office with abdominal pain for the last 4 months. The patient describes intermittent episodes of dull epigastric pain that usually start when she skips a meal. She often drinks a glass of lactose-free milk or takes acetaminophen to ease the symptoms. The patient also describes bloating after eating certain types of food. Her medical history includes diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Blood pressure is 142/89 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min. BMI is 31 kg/m2. Physical examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Abdominal ultrasound shows several gallstones 3-4 mm in diameter.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody testing
B) Cholescintigraphy (hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid scan)
C) Gastric emptying study
D) Helicobacter pylori testing
E) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Correct Answer:
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