A 63-year-old man comes to the physician with a 4-week history of rectal pain and occasional rectal bleeding. He initially thought he had hemorrhoids and applied over-the-counter creams without significant relief. He had prostate cancer treated with external beam radiation therapy 1 year earlier. The patient is an ex-smoker with a 30-pack-year history but does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. He lives with his girlfriend of 10 years.
His blood pressure is 128/68 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 14/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender to palpation. Rectal examination reveals guaiac- positive brown stool.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Sigmoidoscopy shows rectal mucosal pallor with friability and several telangiectasias.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Androgen deprivation
B) Collagenous colitis
C) Human papillomavirus infection
D) Inflammatory bowel disease
E) Radiation injury
Correct Answer:
Verified
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