A 72-year-old man comes to the office due to cough and hemoptysis. The patient has had a nonproductive cough for 3 months and began to cough up scant sputum with flecks of blood 4 days ago. He also notes anorexia and a 7-kg (15-lb) weight loss over this period. He has a history of hypertension and osteoarthritis. The patient is a former smoker with a 54-pack-year history.
Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 132/80 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 16/min. BMI is 22 kg/m2. The patient appears thin. Breath sounds are reduced over the left lower lung field. Abdominal examination is normal. Finger clubbing is noted. There is an enlarged left supraclavicular lymph node but no cervical, axillary, or inguinal lymphadenopathy.
CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveal a 4-cm left perihilar mass, several enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes and right lung nodules, and 2 liver lesions. Bronchoscopic biopsy confirms small cell lung cancer. PET/CT scan and brain imaging reveal no evidence of other metastasic lesions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Obtain molecular profile for targeted drug therapy
B) Offer platinum-based chemotherapy
C) Perform pulmonary function tests to assess pulmonary reserve
D) Recommend hospice care due to extensive disease
E) Refer for chest and prophylactic brain radiation therapy
Correct Answer:
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