A 70-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation before an elective left knee replacement. Except for chronic left knee pain due to long-standing osteoarthritis, she has no other symptoms. The patient underwent an uncomplicated right knee replacement 4 years ago. Her only other medical problem is hypertension, for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide and amlodipine. She does not use tobacco or alcohol.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Her BMI is 24 kg/m2. Physical examination shows spotty submandibular lymph nodes and crepitus in her left knee. Cardiovascular and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Peripheral blood smear shows small mature lymphocytes and a few smudge cells. Flow cytometry shows a population of cells that are CD5+, CD19+, CD23+, and CD38+.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Initiate chemotherapy and postpone surgery
B) Obtain bone marrow biopsy
C) Obtain cervical lymph node biopsy
D) Obtain ZAP-70 and VH gene mutation status
E) Proceed with knee replacement
Correct Answer:
Verified
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