A 58-year-old woman comes to the walk-in clinic with 2 days of right thigh pain. She has hypertension and her medications include chlorthalidone and lisinopril. She also has been told that she is pre-diabetic. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2.
The patient's blood pressure is 152/80 mm Hg and pulse is 87/min. A tender, nodular cord is palpated along the inner upper-right thigh. There are no skin changes. There is no ankle edema.
Her previous laboratory results were notable for creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL and HbA1c of 6.7%.
Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?
A) Advise cold compresses and low-dose aspirin
B) Order hypercoagulability workup
C) Order venous duplex scan of the legs
D) Prescribe naproxen and follow up in 7-10 days
E) Schedule pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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