A 28-year-old Asian woman comes to the physician to establish care. She has no specific complaints. Her past medical history is significant for menorrhagia treated successfully with medroxyprogesterone for 2 years and lactose intolerance. She was also previously advised to take iron supplements but developed constipation and abdominal cramping and stopped taking them.
Vital signs and physical examination are within normal limits.
Laboratory results are as follows:
A hemoglobin electrophoresis shows hemoglobin A 98%, hemoglobin F 0%, and A2 2%.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) High oxygen affinity hemoglobin disease
B) Iron malabsorption
C) Myelodysplasia
D) Smoldering myeloma
E) Thalassemia trait
Correct Answer:
Verified
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