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A 24-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Physician with Lumps in Her

Question 441

Multiple Choice

A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician with lumps in her neck.  She has no fever, night sweats, or weight loss.  The patient has no other medical problems and takes no medications.  Menarche was at age 12 and she has never been pregnant.  Family history is unremarkable.  She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 2 years but does not use alcohol or illicit drugs.
Vital signs are within normal limits.  Physical examination shows bilateral enlarged cervical and axillary lymph nodes.  There is no hepatosplenomegaly.  The remainder of the physical examination is within normal limits.
Laboratory results are as follows:
A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician with lumps in her neck.  She has no fever, night sweats, or weight loss.  The patient has no other medical problems and takes no medications.  Menarche was at age 12 and she has never been pregnant.  Family history is unremarkable.  She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 2 years but does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits.  Physical examination shows bilateral enlarged cervical and axillary lymph nodes.  There is no hepatosplenomegaly.  The remainder of the physical examination is within normal limits. Laboratory results are as follows:   Computed tomography scan of the neck, chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals enlarged lymph nodes above the diaphragm.  A lymph node biopsy shows large multinucleated giant cells that are negative for CD20 and CD45 and positive for CD15 and CD30.  Bone marrow biopsy is negative.  Transthoracic echocardiogram shows normal cardiac structures and function. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient? A) Chemotherapy B) Exercise stress testing C) Fertility specialist referral D) HLA typing for allogeneic bone marrow transplant E) Psychiatric evaluation
Computed tomography scan of the neck, chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals enlarged lymph nodes above the diaphragm.  A lymph node biopsy shows large multinucleated giant cells that are negative for CD20 and CD45 and positive for CD15 and CD30.  Bone marrow biopsy is negative.  Transthoracic echocardiogram shows normal cardiac structures and function.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?


A) Chemotherapy
B) Exercise stress testing
C) Fertility specialist referral
D) HLA typing for allogeneic bone marrow transplant
E) Psychiatric evaluation

Correct Answer:

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