A 60-year-old woman is evaluated for occasional short-lived episodes of dizziness. She has had no headaches, blurry vision, muscle weakness, or syncope. The patient has no history of heart disease or stroke. She takes over-the-counter acetaminophen for low back pain and is a lifetime nonsmoker.
Blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. There are no rashes. Neurologic examination shows no abnormalities.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Further workup shows the presence of the JAK2 V617F mutation.
Because of her current condition, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following?
A) Acquired von Willebrand disease
B) Amyloidosis
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D) Niacin deficiency
E) Tumor lysis syndrome
Correct Answer:
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