A 47-year-old previously healthy man comes to the office due to 3 days of abdominal discomfort, nausea, and diarrhea. He has had 10-12 small-volume stools per day with no visible blood or mucus. He has had no fever or vomiting but did have generalized aches and a sense of being unwell prior to the onset of diarrhea. The patient has not taken any antibiotics or traveled recently. He ate at an outdoor cookout 2 days before he developed symptoms.
Vital signs are within normal limits with no orthostatic changes. Examination shows moist mucous membranes. Mild periumbilical tenderness is present with no guarding or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are increased. Rectal examination reveals no blood.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Campylobacter jejuni
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Norovirus
D) Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer:
Verified
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