A 68-year-old man comes to the physician because of increased urinary frequency and nocturia. He has not increased his daily oral fluid intake. He has no dysuria, hematuria, penile discharge, or difficulty urinating. His other medical problems include recently diagnosed hypertension and osteoarthritis of his knees.
His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. There is no jugular venous distention or peripheral edema. The abdomen is soft and without suprapubic tenderness. The prostate gland is normal in size, has no distinct nodules, and is nontender.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Review medication list
B) Start ciprofloxacin
C) Start doxazosin
D) Start finasteride
E) Urine culture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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